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QUESTION 1
Which two Fibre Channel zoning options are supported with vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Single-Initiator
B. Single-Initiator-Single-Target
C. Multiple-Initiators-Single-Target
D. Multiple-Initiators-Multiple-Targets
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A.
Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B.
Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C.
Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D.
Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An administrator is performing upgrades to ESXi 6.x from ESX 3.x and ESX 4.x hosts. What is true about this
procedure?
A. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.1 and later hosts.
B. ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded, but require an upgrade to 4.x before 5.x.
C. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.5 and later hosts.
D. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 3.5 and later hosts.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
You must upgrade version 3.x ESX and ESXi hosts to ESX or ESXi version 4.x before you can upgrade them to ESXi
5.1.x. See the vSphere 4.x upgrade documentation.
Alternatively, you might find it simpler and more cost effective to do a fresh installation of ESXi 5.1.x.
QUESTION 4
An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using over 90% of its available
resources for five minutes or longer. Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger
without running a script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Power on a VM, reboot guest and Migrate a VM will be the actions taken by vCenter Server in response to a trigger
without needing a script.
QUESTION 5
After selecting an object in vRealize Operations, how can a user compare the badge values of related child objects?
A. Use the Scoreboard tab
B. Use the Relationship tab
C. Use the Members tab
D. Use the Overview tab
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESXi 6.x instead of using VMware Workstation 8? (Choose
two.)
A. The company needs to be able to assign existing physical disks to virtual machines.
B. The company needs remote management of virtual machines
C. The company needs support for virtual machines with up to sixteen vCPUs
D. The company wants the lowest overhead possible for the virtual infrastructure.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7
Which two settings are required by the deployment wizard when installing the VMware vCenter Server Virtual Appliance
(vCSA)? (Choose two.)
A. Number of CPUs
B. Datastore to install on
C. Linked-mode
D. Name of the vCenter server
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-25FCB
A87-5D2F-4CB6-85D7-88899B4AC174.html
QUESTION 8
What virtual machine action listed below can be performed on a template?
A. Power on
B. Clone
C. Edit Settings
D. Migrate
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://robertparten.com/vmware-difference-between-clone-and-template/
QUESTION 9
After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that
needs to be made is that the hostname of the server needs to change. What are two ways that an administrator can
change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.)
A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here.
B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client.
C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname.
D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
You have just installed an ESXi 6.x Host. As part of your company security regulations, a security banner must be
presented on the console of the host. How can this action be accomplished?
A. Configure the Advanced Settings > Annotations screen of the ESXi host.
B. This is configured from the Direct Console User Interface configuration menu.
C. It is not possible to configure a security banner for the ESXi host.
D. From vCenter Server, this setting is configured globally in the vCenter Server configuration.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
An administrator is attempting to enable Storage I/O Control on a datastore, but it is failing. What is the likely reason for
this failure?
A. The host is connected to a datastore is running on ESX 4.0.
B. The host is connected to a Fibre Channel storage array.
C. The datastore has multiple extents.
D. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which three traffic types are available services options when configuring a vmkernel port? (Choose three.)
A. Provisioning Traffic
B. Virtual Volumes Traffic
C. vSphere Replication NFC Traffic
D. Virtual SAN Traffic
E. FCoE Traffic
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
When is it possible to place a VMFS5 datastore in maintenance mode?
A. When it is a member of a Storage DRS cluster
B. When it is a member of Virtual SAN cluster
C. When it is a member of a multi-extent datastore
D. When it is a member of a Virtual Volume
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
An administrator is setting up vSphere Auto Deploy to deploy 25 ESXi 6.x hosts using the vCenter Server Virtual
Appliance (vCSA). What would be considered best practices for Auto Deploy? (Choose three.)
A. Enable vSphere HA on the cluster.
B. Protect the vCenter server with Fault Tolerance.
C. Install the Auto Deploy service on the VCSA.
D. Include the vmware-fdm VIB in the image profile.
E. Use PowerCLI to write a rule that assigns a custom image profile to the target hosts.
Correct Answer: ADE
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc_50%2FGUID-980
D9E38-633E-4557-9144-AC422FA239C5.html
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QUESTION 1
Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.)
A. Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI)
B. Master Encryption Key (MEK)
C. Data Encryption Key (DEK)
D. Key Encryption Key (KEK)
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about Permanent Device Loss (PDL)? (Choose two.)
A. All paths are shown as Dead for the affected device.
B. The datastore cluster is incorrectly configured.
C. The datastore on the affected device shown a yellow warning sign.
D. The datastore on the affected device shows a red error sign.
E. The operational state of the affected device changes to Lost Communication.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to enable VMware Fault Tolerance on a virtual machine.
Which two vSphere features are supported with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)
A. VM Component Protection
B. vSphere HA
C. Storage DRS
D. Snapshots
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
Which three are supported upgrade processes for ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. using vSphere Auto Deploy
B. using a TFTP server
C. using Update Manager
D. using an ESXCLI command
E. installing from CIFS share
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
Which two storage technologies are supported for MSCS? (Choose two.)
A. VAAI
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. FC
Correct Answer: CD
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2147661?other.KM_Utility.getArticleLanguage=1andr=1andothe
r.KM_Utility.getArticleData=1andother.KM_Utility.getArticle=1andui-comm-runtime-components- aura-components-
siteforceqb.Quarterback.validateRoute=1andother.KM_Utility.getGUser=1
QUESTION 6
An administrator wants to upgrade ESXi 5.5 hosts to ESXi 6.5 using Update Manager. When performing a scan for
baseline compliance, the host\\’s
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is performing a silent automatic update of VMware Tools on a Windows virtual machine. What syntax
needs to be entered into the Advanced Options box?
A. /s /v “/qn” /l “c:\Windows\filename.log”
B. –prefix=/usr/local,/usr/lib,/usr/doc –s
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QUESTION 1
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
Which protocol allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to take control of a specific port on a gateway?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. Q.931
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two steps are not necessary when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Personal Communicator?(Choose
two.)
A. Assign license capabilities
B. Subscribe phone service
C. Create a CSF device
D. Configure the owner user ID
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to delete unassigned phone extensions from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
system. Where is this task accomplished?
A. route plan report
B. directory numbers
C. route plan details
D. enterprise parameters
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best
meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is the admin profile used for supervisor to modify or configure the recorded messages of customer employees?
A. annunciator admin
B. recordings admin
C. remote admin
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be
“TEI_ASSIGNED”. What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway?
A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational.
B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway.
C. The T1 interfaces are down.
D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An IT administrator must allow a customer service department supervisor to change or modify a recorded message on
their phone system. Which role is needed to accomplish this?
A. Greeting Administrator
B. Recordings Administrator
C. Remote Administrator
D. Annunciator Administrator
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which
option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\\’s
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QUESTION 1
You have a lightweight AP that has been moved to a new subnet and has become stranded because DNS and DHCP
servers are unavailable. The AP cannot connect to the controller. When connected to the console port, which three
minimum parameters must you configure? (Choose three.)
A. AP IP address
B. controller name
C. AP hostname
D. default gateway IP address
E. controller IP address
F. username and password
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
In order to manually configure static information on a LAP using the AP CLI interface, you can use these EXEC mode
CLI commands:
AP#capwap ap ip address
AP#capwap ap ip default-gateway
AP#capwap ap controller ip address
AP#capwap ap hostname
(optional)
Notice the first 3 are needed for the AP to connect to the controller; the last step is optional and not needed for basic
connectivity to the controller.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200-series/99763-reset- lwappconfig-lap.html
QUESTION 2
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
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F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
AnyConnect offers the DART module that can be used to analyze and troubleshoot connections. The information
collected by DART can be examined locally or exported and sent to a network support desk for analysis.
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QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
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QUESTION 1
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 2
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
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QUESTION 1
Which two options are limitations of NetFlow Version 5? (Choose two.)
A. no support for IPv6, Layer 2, or MPLS fields
B. fixed field specifications
C. excessive network utilization
D. analyzes all packets on the interface
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required before FIPS is configured in Cisco MDS? (Choose two.)
A. Passwords must be a minimum of 10 charactersin length.